![]() The Bennett Mechanical Comprehension Test (BMCT) demonstrates your ability to understand mechanical concepts and apply them to solve problems. Plan hysterectomy and BSO at time of menopauseĮ.What is a Bennett Mechanical Comprehension Test? What is the best way for her to lower her risk of cancer?ĭ. ![]() The best treatment is:ġ4) Gynecologic Oncology and Surgery: A 38-year-old G2P2 is BRCA-1 positive. Biopsy reveals vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) 3. What is the most likely diagnosis?ġ3) Gynecologic Oncology and Surgery: A 68-year-old complains of vulvar pruritis. A light green nipple discharge is elicited on exam. Pain for over 6 months which onset with increased stool frequency and pain increases with laxativesġ0) Gynecologic Oncology and Surgery: Which tumor marker is characteristic of a granulosa cell tumor?ġ1) Gynecologic Oncology and Surgery: ONC: What genetic mutation has the highest risk of breast cancer?ġ2) Gynecologic Oncology and Surgery: A 32-year-old patient comes in complaining of nipple discharge. Pain for 2 months which onset with constipation and increases with defecationĭ. Pain for less than a month which onset with constipation, but no change in the form of stoolĬ. Pain for at least 3 days monthly with constipation and relief with defecationī. Which of the following characteristics meet the criteria to diagnose irritable bowel syndrome?Ī. Which is the least reason to operate?ĩ) Urogyn: A patient presents with pelvic pain associated with a change in her bowel habits. Recommend initiating lifestyle changes and recheck blood pressure in 2 monthsĨ) GYN: A 22-year-old patient has an 8 cm myoma. Recommend checking blood pressures at homeĮ. Initiate antihypertensive therapy with hydrochlorothiazideĭ. Initiate antihypertensive therapy with Angiotensin Receptor Blocker (ARB).Ĭ. Initiate antihypertensive therapy with ACE Inhibitorī. The patient returns the next week with a blood pressure of 155/95. You inform her that she should avoid all of the following activities in pregnancy except:ĥ) Obstetrics: Trisomy results most often as a result of nondisjunction during which phase of the cell cycle?Ħ) GYN: Which of the following is a risk factor for endometrial ablation failure?ħ) OFFICE: A 40-year-old African-American female presents for an annual exam with a blood pressure of 145/90. She is worried about which activities and exercises she should avoid in pregnancy. She is overall healthy and is an avid exerciser. What is the cause of this patient’s amenorrhea?ģ) Obstetrics: What is the most likely cause of infertility in a couple with normal HSG and monthly menses?Ĥ) Obstetrics: A 27-year-old G1P0 presents for her first prenatal visit. Laboratory testing reveals:Įstrogen 20 pg/mL (follicular phase 19 -144) ![]() History and physical exam are otherwise unremarkable. She menstruated for 4 years, but her last menses was 11 months ago. The dependency on the puborectalis muscle is increasedĢ) REI: A 17-year-old G0 presents to your office with secondary amenorrhea. The rectoanal inhibitory reflex is normalĮ. The internal anal sphincter is mostly intactĬ. The external anal sphincter is mostly intactī. The most likely reason that the patient has no symptoms of fecal incontinence is:Ī. Pelvic examination is significant for a widened genital hiatus, scarred posterior fourchette, positive dovetail sign and a tender perineal body that is <0.3cm. Review of Systems include rare symptoms of stress urinary incontinence, but no complaints of fecal incontinence. Obstetrical history includes that of an episiotomy with a 4th-degree extension during her last delivery several years ago. PRACTICE TEST QUESTIONS & ANSWERS - Order your manuals nowġ) Female Pelvic Medicine: A 33-year-old multigravida patient presents complaining of dyspareunia and “feeling loose” during intercourse. ![]()
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